Am I Missing Something?

Either I've missed something major in my research or my cognitive abilities have been more compromised than I thought.  If anyone reading this post could offer some insight I may have missed I would really appreciate it.

For the past year and a half I've learned more than I care to about antidepressants (SSRIs, SNRIs, Trycyclic, etc.) and other forms of medication from pain killers to anti-convulsants and sedatives.  I've been prescribed about ten different medications (so far) by several doctors as I've tried desperately to get some relief from my illness.  Right now I'm taking 200mg Welbutrin, 60mg Cymbalta, 100mg Neurontin and 2mg Lorazepam once daily.

Actually, antidepressants are far from new to me.   I've been taking them for about fifteen years.  I've suffered with depression for as long as I can remember with my earliest memory of being depressed taking place in my second grade classroom.  But it wasn't until 1995, while I was attending college, that I was finally diagnosed  with Major Depression and medicated.  Since then I've probably taken most of the antidepressants on the market.

About eight years ago I developed severe Panic Disorder and started taking Lorazepam for acute attacks.  After my panic became partially controlled I used Lorazepam on occasion to help me sleep.  A year and a half ago when I became ill with Fybromyalgia my sleep was severely disrupted as it is with many sufferers.  I couldn't stay asleep and I was plagued with disturbing dreams and horrible nightmares.  I started taking the Lorazepam again and it magically helped me sleep without any noticeable side effects.        

OK so, here's where the confusion starts. The last two doctors I've seen have insisted that I stop taking Lorazepam due to it's "addictive" nature.  I've been prescribed other medications that are meant to replace it, the latest and greatest of which is Neurontin.  I took the prescribed dosage for about six weeks and never experienced any reduction in the side effects which were SEVERE and included nausea, dizziness, migraine headaches, confusion and excessive tiredness.

I'm not understanding the logic here.  Although Lorazepam is supposedly addictive, I've been taking it on and off for eight years.  When I do take it, I'm able to get a good night's sleep, wake up feeling rested and without side-effects.  I've gone days and even weeks in the past without taking it and never experienced any type of withdrawal (which I have from other medications).  The fact that Lorazepam is addictive seems beside the point in this case.  It has worked well for me consistently and I haven't had any ill effects that I'm aware of.  The same cannot be said about the drugs that have been prescribed to replace it.  What am I missing?  Is there some type of stigma attached to the prescribing of Lorazepam (Ativan) in the medical community?  Is it some kind of taboo?  I 'm thoroughly baffled and can think of no other reason that my doctors would be so adamant that I not take it.  Any insight on this?